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1. Posted by amilne (Budding Member 6 posts) 11y

Could someone please advise whether there is a significant difference between Latin Spanish and the Spainish used in Spain.

Thanks.

2. Posted by moutallica (Respected Member 122 posts) 11y

I dont know any specifics, but i do know that there is quite a difference. I speak mexican spanish fluently, and there have been a few times when i've heard spanish from spain and there is many differences, but I can still understand what they are saying for the most part. I'd imagine that the difference would be similar to the difference of say british english and canadian english.

3. Posted by AndrewGW (Full Member 42 posts) 11y

I have lived in Mexcio and Panama for the past 9 years... When I go back to Mexico now, it takes me a day to get used to the intonations and to the different words they use... When I went to Spain for the first time this year, I had a tough time listening to them if they spoke Castillano - the form where they lisp their "s" and "th"...

I equate the differences between Mexico and the Central American countries as the difference between UK English, Canadian English and Australian English... You will understand each other but there will be differences in how words are use e.g. fanny!!!!!

The difference between Latin American Spanish and Castillano is more like the difference between a thick Yorkshire accent and a thick Cockney accent - be buggered if I can understand either one....

Some of the clearest Spanish I have heard spoken is by the Colombians - very clear, spoken in a good tempo and very correct grammar...
Among the worst have to be the Panamanians... to much US influence and they speak very fast, cut of syllables to words, create many Spanglish words which are used nowhere else...

cheers,
Andrew